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No Oil...AT ALL????

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Old Sep 7, 2013 | 11:20 PM
  #21  
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By now, you will almost certainly have topped up your your oil, so the rest of this post is just for the record.
There's never any problem in mixing oils of different viscosity from the same manufacturer.
There's never any problem in mixing synthetic and non-synthetic oil from the same manufacturer.
There is not usually a problem in mixing different brands of oil to solve a short-term problem.
The only possible problems would be if different brands of oil were mixed on a routine basis. Here are a couple of supporting opinions:
"It is not recommended to routinely mix brands, because additives may interact, or the oil becomes destabilized by the mixture".
And again...
Mixing brands is not the best practice, because the additive systems in each brand may be different, and when mixed may not function as efficiently as desired. However, no serious problems with occur if you use a different brand of equivalent quality between oil changes.

Problems arising from mixing of oils do not compare with possible problems from too little oil.
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 12:59 AM
  #22  
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They may be "supporting opinions", but I have yet to see a specific prohibition against it by any refiner.

As long as the new and old are engine oil, I can't see a problem.
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 04:01 AM
  #23  
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Originally Posted by Marquise Williams
yeah I have been doing it first thing in the morning before the day gets started...I have done oil changes before...I have just ran into issues on previous cars and my time is money so I would rather just get the oil changes then do it on my own.

so a half quart will get it to the mid way point of the dip stick?
Put half a quart, leave for a few minutes for the oil to settle, then check the dipstick again.

What's important is: the oil level should always be between the upper and lower marks and NEVER above the the upper limit.

So if you add oil until you achieve the above and check it regularly, you'll know the engine oil can do it's job.
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 04:08 AM
  #24  
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Originally Posted by abonano
Nope... read through the responses - you need to get the oil to the max mark - not the half way point...
I reckon you're being a little pedantic here mate.

See the thing in perspective: we start with a guy and his wife's car with NO oil showing at all and now you're saying that the only level that is acceptable is the upper limit - well that just not true.

Also bearing in mind that the oil level obviously hasn't been checked regularly seems to suggest a general lack of interest in the mechanical side of cars so I reckon you are stating a course of action which could potentially cause problems if the car owner thinks the only 'good' position is the upper limit and innadvertently puts in too much he could cause more damage.

The oil level is not an absolute, it's a reccomended range.

Lighten up guy.
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 09:38 AM
  #25  
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Originally Posted by plums
They may be "supporting opinions", but I have yet to see a specific prohibition against it by any refiner.
Dead right. What would a refiner gain by such a prohibition? If there was a problem, their tests would show the oil was a mix of brands and they would immediately disclaim responsibility. Ask me how I know.
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 10:57 AM
  #26  
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Originally Posted by plums
They may be "supporting opinions", but I have yet to see a specific prohibition against it by any refiner.

As long as the new and old are engine oil, I can't see a problem.
Nor I.

I'd like to see any supporting evidence (not just opinions) demonstrating that occasional mixing of brands has caused a problem. Even the ultrageeks on BITOG really had to stretch to find anything.

This is all they could dig up. It's pretty weak:

http://www.infineum.com/Documents/Cr...cants-2010.pdf
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 12:14 PM
  #27  
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Originally Posted by Mikey
Nor I.

I'd like to see any supporting evidence (not just opinions) demonstrating that occasional mixing of brands has caused a problem.
I doubt that you ever will. No one has ever suggested that occasional mixing of brands is harmful.
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 03:48 PM
  #28  
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Originally Posted by thebiglad
I reckon you're being a little pedantic here mate.

See the thing in perspective: we start with a guy and his wife's car with NO oil showing at all and now you're saying that the only level that is acceptable is the upper limit - well that just not true.

Also bearing in mind that the oil level obviously hasn't been checked regularly seems to suggest a general lack of interest in the mechanical side of cars so I reckon you are stating a course of action which could potentially cause problems if the car owner thinks the only 'good' position is the upper limit and innadvertently puts in too much he could cause more damage.

The oil level is not an absolute, it's a reccomended range.

Lighten up guy.
Dave, your kidding, right???

I never said the max mark is the only "acceptable" outcome. My original guidance was to get 2 - 3 quarts into the engine to begin with to get a reading on the dipstick. The OP put 2 quarts in - barely got a reading on the dipstick. At that point - the OP should add 0.5 qt until he is "in range".

I personally ensure my oil is at or very near the full mark on the dipstick.

I mean, what do I know - I have a 00 S Type V8 with over 215K miles (guess filling the oil and maintaining to the full mark and maintaining it there does have it's benefits...)

Cheers my friend...
 
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Old Sep 8, 2013 | 07:53 PM
  #29  
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Originally Posted by Robinb
Dead right. What would a refiner gain by such a prohibition? If there was a problem, their tests would show the oil was a mix of brands and they would immediately disclaim responsibility. Ask me how I know.
If you are implying that you personally had a claim for damage denied by a refiner due to mixing of oil, there is still the question of proof. Not that the oil was a mix, but that the mix was the proximate cause of the damage.

Most vendors of most products approach damage claims with a policy of deny, deny, and deny some more.

That does not mean that they are correct in their viewpoint.

In a court of law, if you can establish proximate cause based upon expert evidence to the standard of "on the balance of the evidence", their opinion means nothing. A tough and expensive road, and they know it.

The first protest upon receiving such an opinion would have been along the lines of improper disclosure with regard to product usage. If they are going to claim that a specific usage pattern habitually practiced by the public is in fact harmful, then they have an obligation to disclose this restriction.
 
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Old Sep 9, 2013 | 12:51 AM
  #30  
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Originally Posted by plums
If you are implying that you personally had a claim for damage denied by a refiner due to mixing of oil, there is still the question of proof. Not that the oil was a mix, but that the mix was the proximate cause of the damage.

Etc, etc....
You seem determined to make a mountain out of this molehill. If someone uses a mixture of product A and product B in their machinery, has a problem and makes a claim on the manufacturer of product A, one would naturally expect that manufacturer to deny liability, once it was etablished that their product had been mixed with another.
 
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Old Sep 11, 2013 | 06:32 PM
  #31  
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Old Nov 23, 2013 | 07:51 AM
  #32  
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thanks a lot guys...no oil has came out again...I dont know what it is...found out that the "stutter" was cylinder 6 misfiring. I'm going to change the plugs and that one coil, and hope for the best. I don't know if that is related to the oil going low but I'm going to do a full oil change also.
 
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